The definition of oratory that Gorgias and Socrates finally agree on is:
Oratory is the craft of persuasion through speeches in law courts and an assembly.
Oratory is the craft that influences entirely via speeches and is concerned with the best and greatest of human concerns.
Oratory is the craft that has convincing people of falsehoods as its ultimate aim.
None of the above.
Who does Gorgias claim that the craft of oratory is meant to persuade?
Those who are experts in the field that the orator is discussing.
Those who are not knowledgeable in the field under discussion.
Only those who are not able to make speeches.
None of the above.
What is the inconsistency in Gorgias' account of oratory that Socrates refers to on p. 16?
Orators can persuade and not persuade simultaneously.
Orators can produce both teaching-persuasion and conviction-persuasion.
Gorgias said he would answer "any question anyone might" ask (p. 2) but he seems to attempt to back out by saying that the rest of the audience might be tired of listening (p. 16 - 17).
None of the above.
Which of the following fallacies is correctly defined?
Begging the question is when someone leaves something unsaid, and this makes the audience feel the need to ask an important question.
Red Herring is when someone pulls a stinky, smelly, rotting ol' dead fish across their tracks in order to throw the dogs tracking them off their scent so that they can escape.
Denying the antecedent is when someone claims that since the consequent of a condtional statement is false, the antecented of that same conditional statement must also be false.
None of the above.
A problem with Socrates' arguments that attempt to show that orators are responsible for their students' unjust behavior is
It seems one can learn something without becoming a person of that kind.
There is no reason to believe that the orator-teacher is responsible for their students' behavior.
The result of the first argument is a contradiction.